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Low Level decision

Poll: What do you bid? (36 member(s) have cast votes)

What do you bid?

  1. 1NT (2 votes [5.56%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.56%

  2. 2[CL] (10 votes [27.78%])

    Percentage of vote: 27.78%

  3. 2[DI] (10 votes [27.78%])

    Percentage of vote: 27.78%

  4. 2[HE] (2 votes [5.56%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.56%

  5. 2NT (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  6. 3[CL] (3 votes [8.33%])

    Percentage of vote: 8.33%

  7. would had opened 1NT (9 votes [25.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 25.00%

  8. other (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

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#1 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 05:48

Scoring: IMP

S - N
1-1
1-1*


1= 4SF
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#2 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 06:06

1S shows 4S and is not normally used as 4th suit, 2S is 4th suit in this position 3 or less S GF values.

I elected not to open 1NT which I feel is sensible and would bid 1NT although would not quibble with 2D at all.
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#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 06:09

I would've opened 1NT.

Now, if 1 is in fact 4sf and GF, I'll rebid 2...
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#4 User is offline   flytoox 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 06:31

I like 2D. If my diamonds are xx then I probably will just bid 1N, no matter I have spade stopper or not.
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#5 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 07:12

would have opened 1NT, so very glad that partner responded 1D not 1S. Also, I like to play 1S as natural here (2D would be GF). As I like to play that 1H already promises an unbalanced hand (so most likely 5 clubs) I'm not going to emphasize clubs for the third time. 2D seems the best lie.

This post has been edited by Hannie: 2005-September-14, 09:59

Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#6 User is offline   Echognome 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 07:32

Hannie mentions what I think is an important question. Did the 1 show 5 clubs? I.e. would you have bid 1NT with a minimum balanced hand? If not, then a simple return to 2 is ok, but I wouldn't quibble with 1NT either. If 1 already showed that you had 5 then I think 1NT is more attractive, but wouldn't quibble with 2.
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#7 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 07:34

Not much point in playing 1S as natural. Some players play that a 2S bid now shows a decent hand with no S stopper with a 5422 shape. With that agreement, thats what I would bid, else 2D.
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#8 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 07:37

I voted 2, especially if 1 does not suggest five clubs. But now I realize that I could have voted for a 1NT opening. I would certainly have bid that.
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#9 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 08:50

I like 2D to show 3 cards, I'd try 2C here.

Opening 1NT is a close call. I'd certainly try if the DQ were SQ. As it is I'd bid 1C or 1NT depending on tactical considerations.
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#10 User is offline   SoTired 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 09:12

if you open this hand 1C, then you must complete the picture and bid 2C now. I would think 3C would be 64. Although opening this hand 1N has its appeal (protecting your Qx), your strength is concentrated in your 2 long suits, making this hand very powerful if a fit is found.
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#11 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-September-14, 09:51

I vote for 2D, though I would have opened 1N. Not sure what I was planning on doing if partner bid 1S immediately.
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#12 User is offline   Jurek S 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 10:06

I'd rather open 1 than 1NT. As 1 says nothing about why not bid your second decent suit - ? So 2, but if by agreement 2 is good hand, no I vote for it
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#13 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 10:17

I have to say I really dislike opening 1NT with this hand, so the question is whether I dislike the 1 rebid problem even more. Might prefer 1 actually.
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#14 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 10:20

Well, playing 'xyz' which is pretty common around here, pard bids 2C with an invite and 2D with a GF.

So 1S is sort of undefined. I think we are actually playing it as NF!

1S could also be used as a puppet to 1N or 2C too.

We also play walsh rebids so opener with a 4405 doesn't have to worry about missing spades since pard won't have them unless he has an invite or better.
"Phil" on BBO
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#15 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 10:47

I agree Phil, over 1C-1D-1H:

1S= natural non-forcing.
2C= start invite
2D= artificial GF
2S= natural and GF, shows good diamonds.

So if you play (as is becoming more and more popular here) that 1C-1D-1NT is strong (18-19 or 17-19) then you really don't need to play Walsh style responses. If partner rebids 1H or 1S (which can be done on a 3-card suit) you can show your major and strength (no need to show hearts if partner bids spades), and when partner rebids 1NT you probably have at least enough strength to invite game. I really like this auction:

1C-1D
1NT-2C
2D-2M

Opener has shown 17-19 balanced, responder has shown an invitational hand with a 4-card major and 5+ diamonds. Hard to do in "standard" methods.

Only with very weak hands (5-6 points, maybe 7?) do you need to show your major first.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#16 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-September-14, 10:52

pclayton, on Sep 14 2005, 11:20 AM, said:

So 1S is sort of undefined. I think we are actually playing it as NF!

<snip>

We also play walsh rebids so opener with a 4405 doesn't have to worry about missing spades since pard won't have them unless he has an invite or better.

So 1S is natural and invitational, not really "NF"?
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#17 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 11:27

1s=natural and game force :lol: Even playing XYZ or 2 way checkback.
Playing Walsh you got to bid 1s with all non g/f which is why I open 1nt :)

I open 1nt, now...just rebid 2D I guess. I do have Qx.
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#18 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 13:03

Jlall, on Sep 14 2005, 08:52 AM, said:

pclayton, on Sep 14 2005, 11:20 AM, said:

So 1S is sort of undefined. I think we are actually playing it as NF!

<snip>

We also play walsh rebids so opener with a 4405 doesn't have to worry about missing spades since pard won't have them unless he has an invite or better.

So 1S is natural and invitational, not really "NF"?

Well - (as Hans implies) we will skip the 's with 5-7 or so. And Opener's 1 rebid doesn't promise a 15-17 hand either.

So 1 by responder tends to show something like: Axxx, xxx, KQxxx, x. Its a hand you can't unilaterally invite on, since pard hasn't defined his strength yet - although if pard has the 15-17 variety, you will get interested.

And if pard wants to pass with his usual cheese like: Kxx, Kxxx, x, Axxxx you aren't upset.
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#19 User is offline   Al_U_Card 

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Posted 2005-September-14, 13:18

When you open, and promise a rebid, the idea is that it is not a "problem" rebid. Opening 1NT solves the issue, so the lesser lie on this auction has to be 2D and ask pard if he would prefer that you open 1NT with that kind of hand......
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#20 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2005-September-14, 13:29

pclayton, on Sep 14 2005, 11:20 AM, said:

We also play walsh rebids so opener with a 4405 doesn't have to worry about missing spades since pard won't have them unless he has an invite or better.

<snip>

So 1♠ by responder tends to show something like: Axxx, xxx, KQxxx, x. Its a hand you can't unilaterally invite on, since pard hasn't defined his strength yet - although if pard has the 15-17 variety, you will get interested.

These seem to contradict each other.
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