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Act now?

#1 User is offline   catch22 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 09:21

Scoring: IMP

(P)-P-(1S)-?


What do you bid?
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#2 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 09:38

Heavy 1N overcall for me.
"Phil" on BBO
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#3 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 09:51

1NT ok.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#4 User is offline   skjaeran 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 11:54

Yeah, I'll overcall 1NT too.
Kind regards,
Harald
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#5 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 13:24

Huh, I'd have said 2. Shows what I know.
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#6 User is offline   hatchett 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 13:40

I'll join the 1NTers.
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#7 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-August-18, 14:47

yep, obvious 1N
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#8 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 15:12

Obvious 1nt. (Transfer to clubs naturally.)
_____________________________________

Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

_____________________________________

We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


Gnasher
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#9 User is offline   andy_h 

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Posted 2008-August-18, 20:04

Agree with 1NT
- Andy -

We are all connected to each other biologically, to the Earth chemically, and to the rest of the universe atomically.
We're in the universe, and the universe is in us.
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#10 User is offline   Edmunte1 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 03:19

2
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#11 User is offline   catch22 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 10:56

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far
(P)-P-(1)-X
(2)-P-(P)-?

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?
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#12 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 10:57

After I bid 1N, I pass of course.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#13 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:00

catch22, on Aug 19 2008, 05:56 PM, said:

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far
(P)-P-(1)-X
(2)-P-(P)-?

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having bid 1NT on the previous round I now have an easy and obvious pass.

If I doubled the previous round it was apparently because I thought my hand was too strong for 1NT, so I have to bid 2NT now.

If someone bid 2C on the previous round, and was then unavoidably called away and I had to take over, I would now pass 2S.
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#14 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:11

catch22, on Aug 19 2008, 06:56 PM, said:

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-?  - This has been the auction so far
(P)-P-(1)-X
(2)-P-(P)-?

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having started with a transfer for clubs, I consider myself a 2 bidder.

Now I bid 2nt. I dont like it, but at least it describes my hand. Partner didn't double 2, so a minor-runout is not unlikely, and will be welcomed. I like taking the active risk much better than taking the passive. Partner need nothing more than QJXX and the Q, for game to be on.

Had I bid 1nt, I would have passed now, and liked it even less.
_____________________________________

Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

_____________________________________

We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


Gnasher
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#15 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:16

catch22, on Aug 19 2008, 11:56 AM, said:

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-? - This has been the auction so far
(P)-P-(1)-X
(2)-P-(P)-?

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having bid 2 before, I'd bid 2NT now. I think if I'd started with 1NT then pass now is obvious.
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#16 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:18

jtfanclub, on Aug 19 2008, 12:16 PM, said:

catch22, on Aug 19 2008, 11:56 AM, said:

If you bid 1NT or 2 then the auction will continue (2)-P-(P)-?  - This has been the auction so far
(P)-P-(1)-X
(2)-P-(P)-?

What would the 1NT and 2 bidders bid now?

Having bid 2 before, I'd bid 2NT now. I think if I'd started with 1NT then pass now is obvious.

That shows a 4 card side suit, like 4-6 in the minors. Try again...
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#17 User is offline   catch22 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:19

FrancesHinden, on Aug 19 2008, 12:00 PM, said:

If I doubled the previous round it was apparently because I thought my hand was too strong for 1NT, so I have to bid 2NT now.

Just to be clear the X in the auction was there to represent either a 1NT or a 2C bid. OK it was a really duff choice of symbol.
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#18 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:27

Suppose the original hand had been:

AK54
4
KQ5
AKT86

How would you have bid it?

I'm trusting that my partner, looking at his spade shortness and the auction, will be able to figure out that I'm three suited (not 2), and therefore I won't be as extreme as 6-4. I think he'll figure me for a good 3-1-4-5 hand, which is about as good as I can describe on this auction, unfortunately.
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#19 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 11:29

jtfanclub, on Aug 19 2008, 12:27 PM, said:

Suppose the original hand had been:

AK54
4
KQ5
AKT86

How would you have bid it?

Who cares? What does an example hand have to do with anything? I'm telling you what the bid means! Don't believe me for all I care.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#20 User is offline   jtfanclub 

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Posted 2008-August-19, 13:09

jdonn, on Aug 19 2008, 12:29 PM, said:

What does an example hand have to do with anything?

I think there are lots of 3-suited hands where most people, including you, would bid 2 followed by 2NT even though you aren't 4-6. I think your rule is generally correct, the same way that 1NT overcalls are balanced or negative doubles show 4 cards in the other major are generally correct. I'm sure you can come up with your own, better, examples, so you're right that I shouldn't have bothered.
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