[Califdude]

I've seen partnerships playing both ways on the question of whether a cue bid in opponent's suit indicated cue bidder had a stopper vs asking if partner has a stopper, as a way of getting into no-trump . Has this been settled one way or the other in current advanced play?

Example:
1D-1H-1S-P
2H

If you understand the question but this is not a good example, please point out why not a good example and give a better one. Thanks for your replies.

[karlson]

A common agreement is that if the opponents bid only one suit, a cuebid is asking. If they bid two suits, then a cuebid shows a stopper in that suit, and asks about the other one.

In your auction, 2h could be a number of different hands, but one of responder's first priorities is certainly to bid NT with a stopper.

If you think about it, it really doesn't make sense the other way. I mean, if 2h shows a stopper, then what do you do without one? Bid NT?

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

most player would agree, that if they have
bid one suit, the cue asks for a stopper, more
precise, the cue aks for further description,
and one possible feature the cue bidder would
like to know, if partner has a stopper.

If they have shown two suits, you may get
different answers, some play that the cue of one
suite showes a stopper and asks for a stopper in
the other uit, some that it asks for a stopper in the
suit the cue was made, my impression was, that
asking was the majority choice, but I may be
wrong, as often.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[pclayton]

Its really a more complicated question than that.

2♥ in your example can show many hand types without primary spade support. Many hands with single suited diamonds, and 1=3=5=4 are a few examples. While frequently responder will show a stop as a matter of course, its not the only priority.

The Western Cue that you are referring to pops its head up in a couple of defined auctions:

1. A jump cue over their 1M opening.

2. Sometimes in certain constructive sequences where the opponents have bid:

1♣ - (1♠) - 2♠ - (pass)
3♣ - {pass) - 3♠

I would be hard pressed not to show a stopper here.

[Califdude]

OK, good replies, thanks. I assume that if you are partner of the cue bidder and you do have a stopper, then you bid no-trump without further delay?

[MFA]

There is much more focus on bidding NT with a stopper at the 3-level than at the 2-level. After a 2-level cuebid, we have oodles of time, so showing other features than a stopper will often take precedence at this point.

[FrancesHinden]

Califdude, on Sep 12 2008, 10:25 PM, said:

OK, good replies, thanks. I assume that if you are partner of the cue bidder and you do have a stopper, then you bid no-trump without further delay?

You look at your hand.

In your sample auction
1D 1H 1S P
2H P ?

then with

Kxxx
KJx
xxx
xxx

certainly I would bid NT at once, because I have a poor hand with most of its values in hearts (if your 1S bid promises 5 spades, add a spade and take away a club)

but with

Kxxxx
Axx
Kxx
xx

I would bid 3D because I have a nice hand with good diamond support and the ace of hearts rather than slower heart cards; 6D is a live possibility

with

KQJxx
QJx
x
xxxx

I would bid 2S as the suit is worth bidding again and I don't kinow where we are going, I can always bid 3NT next round to show something useful in hearts

[dburn]

FrancesHinden, on Sep 13 2008, 06:35 AM, said:

certainly I would bid NT at once, because I have a poor hand with most of its values in hearts (if your 1S bid promises 5 spades, add a spade and take away a club)

but with

Kxxxx
Axx
Kxx
xx

I would bid 3D because I have a nice hand with good diamond support and the ace of hearts rather than slower heart cards; 6D is a live possibility

with

KQJxx
QJx
x
xxxx

I would bid 2S as the suit is worth bidding again and I don't kinow where we are going, I can always bid 3NT next round to show something useful in hearts.

Interesting, that. What am I supposed to do with:

♠Qxxxx ♥xx ♦Jxx ♣Kxx ?

I mean, I would bid 1♠ at my first turn, would I not? But over 2♥, it seems to me that playing with Frances I cannot bid 2♠ because my spades are nowhere near good enough, I cannot bid 3♦ because that is forcing, I cannot bid 2NT because I do not have a heart stopper... maybe I should pass, or perhaps I should double for takeout.

How far is 2♥ forcing, anyway? Maybe opener can't pass 2♠, although for the life of me I can't see why she shouldn't. But surely 3♦ can be passed, or the world has gone mad.

[jdonn]

dburn, on Sep 13 2008, 05:33 PM, said:

Interesting, that. What am I supposed to do with:

♠Qxxxx  ♥xx  ♦Jxx  ♣Kxx ?
...
I cannot bid 3♦ because that is forcing
...

What exactly is your objection to making a forcing bid in a partscore after partner has already forced to game?

Edit: I didn't see your last comment. It seems obvious 2♥ is forcing to game, is there really a debate about that?