Bidding First, then Play
#1
Posted 2008-September-28, 13:41
You open 1♥ (2/1 GF) and partner surprises you by responding 1♠.
Now what?
-P.J. Painter.
#2
Posted 2008-September-28, 13:56
For this hand it is nice to have Gazilli for HCP heavy splinters and direct splinters to show distributional strong hands.
#3
Posted 2008-September-28, 14:42
It's tempting to bid 4D or 5D with a hand like this, but I will go with a pedestrian 4C bid. If partner signs off we won't have a slam.
Ricky
#5
Posted 2008-September-29, 08:17
The end auction was:
1♥-1♠
3♦-3NT
4♠-4NT
6♥(two with the Queen and a void)-P
The final pass was really weird. I felt that I needed to show the void because I would have held ♠KQJx ♥AKQxxx ♦Kx ♣x or something similar. Walsh Fragments do not seem to be used after a heart opening.
So, to the play problem. Partner had been bidding very strangely. He bid 1♠ because he decided that 3NT was probably going to be the right final contract. He bid 3NT for the same reason. He converted 4♠ to 4NT because he felt that this was natural, which seems odd. In any event, the diamond King hits the table as the lead, after many questions about whether 3♦ was a natural bid and much in the way of fussing over the lead by LHO. You see:
How to play this mess to the bitter end is the next question.
-P.J. Painter.
#7
Posted 2008-September-29, 10:53
- hrothgar
#8
Posted 2008-September-29, 10:58
kenrexford, on Sep 29 2008, 03:17 PM, said:
4NT sounds natural to me.
Opener has shown a very strong 3=5=4=1 or 3=5=5=0. Responder has got a poor 4=1=3=5 or similar. Why shouldn't he want to pull 4S to 4NT looking at
J10xx
x
Qxx
KJ109x
?
You've painted such a pretty picture of your hand that there is no need for RKCB.
p.s. I can understand 3D as a psyche to try and put off the diamond lead. But you seem to be arguing that it's the correct call for some slightly obscure reason. I'm just too stupid not to raise partner when I have 5 card support.
#9
Posted 2008-September-29, 11:02
- hrothgar
#10
Posted 2008-September-29, 11:04
The auction started off so well with 1♥. It's too bad there wasn't a single good bid made by either player after that until partner's pass.
#11
Posted 2008-September-29, 11:05
han, on Sep 29 2008, 11:53 AM, said:
I'm not sure that I agree with this, Han. 3♦ looks like the obvious bid, of course, but deeper thought may persuade you that 3♣ is the superior call.
It is best for a number of reasons:
1. It conserves bidding space
2. We have first round control of clubs, and we all know that suit quality is important when jumpshifting
3. It allows us later to cue our diamond void.
I don't know where Ken finds these weird partners... there he is, bidding straight down the middle, and his partner screws up the auction.
#12
Posted 2008-September-29, 11:09
How else can we right-side 6♥ opposite: Axx Qxx Kx xxxxx?
#13
Posted 2008-September-29, 12:41
There seem to be two lines of thinking going on.
School A feels that 3♦, followed by 4♠, shows a hand that cannot be bid properly by way of a splinter, such that the diamond suit is manufatured. In that school, 4♠ now must show 4+ spades, such that 4NT is unambiguously RKCB (and Opener answers).
School B feels that 3♦ shows a real suit (possibly with a sub-school where 3♦ could be manufactured only when Opener has a hand with a heart one-suiter that is too strong for a 4♥ call), such that 4♠ is simply a pattern-out fragment bid and, accordingly, 4NT is natural.
I don't get School B. How can Opener have a hand that strong, when Responder might have a bare minimum? With 3550, and huge, 4♦ works. So, we have a 3541 monster? How monsterous can we really be, when partner might have just the club King for his bidding to date?
Forgetting the strange 1♠ response, I really do not understand how this auction can show anything other than 4♠ (perhaps 5 but never 3), 6+ hearts, and hence almost assuredly a manufatured diamond suit (4540 being the obvious exception).
-P.J. Painter.
#14
Posted 2008-September-29, 12:54
With discussion one could also play that the auction 1H.. 3D.. 4S shows a hand with only 4 spades but diamonds too weak to bid 4C over 1S.
- hrothgar
#15
Posted 2008-September-29, 12:59
han, on Sep 29 2008, 01:54 PM, said:
With discussion one could also play that the auction 1H.. 3D.. 4S shows a hand with only 4 spades but diamonds too weak to bid 4C over 1S.
But what about a classic walsh fragment type of hand, also? Meaning, solid hearts, four good spades, and 3-0 or 2-1 in the minors? It seems to me that there are a lot of hands for a "fake" 3♦ call, but that 4♠ after 3♦ must assuredly set trumps. If so, then 4NT cannot be to play. Agree?
-P.J. Painter.
#16
Posted 2008-September-29, 13:18
Maybe you could survive by jumping to 5S over 4D. To me 4D does not show any extra values (I'd bid it with xxxx x xxxxx Axx) so 5S may be too high.
In my partnerships we try to show a big fit as soon as possible. If we don't directly support but do it a round later then that almost always denies 4-card support.
- hrothgar
#17
Posted 2008-September-29, 13:53
Just because 4♦ on 3550 or 4♥ on 3640 might "work" doesn't make it the most accurate or best choice.
#18
Posted 2008-September-29, 14:11
jdonn, on Sep 29 2008, 02:53 PM, said:
Just because 4♦ on 3550 or 4♥ on 3640 might "work" doesn't make it the most accurate or best choice.
Unless people are being funny, it looks like three of us bid 3♦ with this holding. That makes a school. You might not agree with that, but it still is so.
What problems develop?
3♥ -- no problem. Bid 3♠ and then 4♠.
3♠ -- wonderful!
3NT -- bid 3NT
4♣(?!?) -- 6♠. It probably makes.
4♦ -- 5♠ works.
4♥/4♠ -- NP.
-P.J. Painter.
#19
Posted 2008-September-29, 14:28
kenrexford, on Sep 29 2008, 03:11 PM, said:
Read the first five words you just wrote. Reread them. Read them a third time. Then think about them very hard. Then go read the posts by Han and Mike again. Then click on this link. Definition number 1 is very appropriate here. Then please get back to me on what constitutes a school.
#20
Posted 2008-September-29, 14:31
♦King lead.