[gambolero]

Low key rubber bridge once a week with a group of coworkers

x/xxx/AKxxx/AQxx
I open 1D, partner responds 1S, I want to bid 2C (not 1NT) I think?

But:
Partner suggests that this bid (2C) is forcing and I should rebid 1NT or 2D instead.
We are at an impasse.
Is such a method playable (any new suit by opener is forcing)?
I always understood that a new suit by opener is only forcing if it is a reverse.

[mgoetze]

2♣ is the correct rebid and should certainly be nonforcing.

[Endymion77]

New suit is always forcing by RESPONDER only, not by opener (although some play 1m - 1♥ -1♠ as forcing for 1 round and it has some merit). 2♣ is your only possible rebid and it's certainly not forcing.

[helene_t]

Even by responder a new suit is not always forcing. For example
1♦-1♠
1NT-2♥*
is non-forcing.

I don't think that it is playable to make this 2♣ bid forcing. 11-17 is already an uncomfortably wide range. Making it 11-20 would make it worse.

Partner's suggestion that you should bid 2♦ or 1NT is not good. You have xxx in hearts so if notrumps is the rights strain it is likely to play better in partner's hand. As it happens your diamonds are quite good so 2♦ probably won't lead to a disaster. Still, partner could have a good club fit. And if he doesn't, he can always bid diamonds after your 2♣ bid.

[Cyberyeti]

As others have said, 2♣ is natural, nonforcing and correct here, although there is quite a bit of merit to playing it as "rarely passed" so that you can freely bid it on a 17 or indifferent 18 count knowing that if you're making game, partner will bid again.