I admit I find a number of things about this thread somewhat surprising.
I don't see why either pass or 3H are, or should be, forcing. More interesting is whether 4D should be forcing.
I don't see why it's a tempo sensitive position when I have an obvious game drive.
Is this simple?
#23
Posted 2011-January-03, 09:50
Maybe i live in a world on my own but I was pretty sure that this was like the 1d-1s-4d auction, where a 4d bid would show basically exactly this hand. 6 good hearts, 4 card diamond support, but not particularly strong in HCP (say <17).
What do other people use 4d for after 1h-2d? There really aren't that many hands which can unilaterally bypass 3N here.
What do other people use 4d for after 1h-2d? There really aren't that many hands which can unilaterally bypass 3N here.
The physics is theoretical, but the fun is real. - Sheldon Cooper
#24
Posted 2011-January-03, 09:55
nice idea, sounds more than sensible.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
George Carlin
George Carlin
#25
Posted 2011-January-03, 16:04
Phil I don't agree that this is a funny-splinter auction, mainly because it implies to me that you would pass and then bid with a strong hand and a diamond fit and no spade shortness. I don't think you can afford this, and personally if I passed and partner Xed (or 3C) and I bid 3D I would expect I might have xxx AKQxx Qx Jxx or something, not a strong hand with diamonds. Or maybe you are implying a 3D raise is forcing, I'm not sure. The difference in this auction and 1S p 2D 2H 3H is that a 3D raise is available there as forcing.
blogging at http://www.justinlall.com
#26
Posted 2011-January-04, 11:11
phil_20686, on 2011-January-03, 09:50, said:
Maybe i live in a world on my own but I was pretty sure that this was like the 1d-1s-4d auction, where a 4d bid would show basically exactly this hand. 6 good hearts, 4 card diamond support, but not particularly strong in HCP (say <17).
What do other people use 4d for after 1h-2d? There really aren't that many hands which can unilaterally bypass 3N here.
What do other people use 4d for after 1h-2d? There really aren't that many hands which can unilaterally bypass 3N here.
The main reason you are in a world of your own is that this is contested auction, so it's not the same as either 1D - 1S - 4D, nor as 1H - pass - 2D - pass (particularly if you play 2D as game forcing).
Not playing 2/1 I play 1H - 2D - 4D as 5-card support, extra values, over which 4H and 4NT are NF and others are cues.
Playing 2/1 it's an interesting idea for 1H - 2D - 4D. Another possible meaning is to play that as keycard for diamonds.
#27
Posted 2011-January-04, 12:05
FrancesHinden, on 2011-January-04, 11:11, said:
Playing 2/1 it's an interesting idea for 1H - 2D - 4D. Another possible meaning is to play that as keycard for diamonds.
That is a very common meaning ime
blogging at http://www.justinlall.com