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Over 2 Clubs Settle an argument

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-April-22, 12:51

Teams, both:

98x
xxx
Axxx
xxx

2-2
2-???

3 or 4?

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2012-April-22, 13:27

This is in what forum?
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#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2012-April-22, 13:29

Depends on:
- does 2 show/deny something?
- is 2 forcing?
- will 3 be forcing if we bid it?

Basically we want to be in 4, but if we have the luxury of bidding a forcing 3, that's what I'd do.
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#4 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-April-22, 13:36

.............
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#5 User is offline   PetteriLem 

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Posted 2012-April-22, 14:11

If 2 was negative response, I have to bid 3. I am maxium and have an ace. Jump to 4 could be totally empty hand and I have much more than that.
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#6 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2012-April-23, 15:22

What argument are we supposed to settle - the argument about what system you had agreed to?
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#7 User is offline   broze 

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Posted 2012-April-23, 16:41

View Postmgoetze, on 2012-April-23, 15:22, said:

What argument are we supposed to settle - the argument about what system you had agreed to?


Clearly there was no agreement, otherwise there wouldn't have been an argument. I suppose OP's question is: "what is standard?"
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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-April-23, 16:50

The standard among expert players is to have an agreement towards basic sequences.
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#9 User is offline   broze 

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Posted 2012-April-23, 17:38

View PostFluffy, on 2012-April-23, 16:50, said:

The standard among expert players is to have an agreement towards basic sequences.


I have heard Justin and others start sentences: "with a random expert pick-up partner I would assume..." I still don't think it is unreasonable to ask what one might assume here if auction undiscussed.
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#10 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2012-April-23, 18:28

4S is fit but no A nor K nor single nor void. NO SLAM.
I guess 3S then. "Slow down, partner!" coming.
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#11 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-April-23, 20:55

So this is just another matter of agreement.

I've always played the jump to 4 as the ugliest hand. But I've also heard people who play second negative, so after 2 they'd bid either 2NT or 3 to show a REALLY bad hand.

However the problem is a theorist said he'd bid 4 with that hand and also if the diamonds were Qxxx. He said that the opener should move over 4 with 2 losers (instead of 3 for example). Is this playable?

Opener had:

AKQJT
AK
K
AKxxx

It's hard not to move even over 4, but on a bad day that's all that can be made when partner tables a yarborough.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#12 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 00:07

View PostPetteriLem, on 2012-April-22, 14:11, said:

If 2 was negative response, I have to bid 3. I am maxium and have an ace. Jump to 4 could be totally empty hand and I have much more than that.


I don't like this but i know most people play the way you just said.

Jumping to 4 should show some values or imo 4 card . (as you can tell i hate the fast arrival methods) There are other ways to show trash hands such as bidding 2nd negative (3 here) and then bidding 4. Etc etc..Also responder can bid 3NT over 2 to show 3 card fit balanced hands and not too broke as the one that would start with 2nd neg but not too hopeful about slam either...Just my thoughts.
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#13 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 01:14

Assuming 2 was just waiting, I think it's normal to play that:
- Very bad hands bid the second negative
- 4 shows four good trumps and no side-suit control, eg QJxx xx xxxx xxx, or the same hand with an extra queen.
- 3 promises semi-positive values, such as this.

That gives 3 quite a wide range, so you should play serious/non-serious 3NT.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#14 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 01:38

View Postgnasher, on 2012-April-24, 01:14, said:

That gives 3 quite a wide range, so you should play serious/non-serious 3NT.

I have always felt that 3N = single suited slam try and 4suit = natural slam try is a good method for this auction.
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#15 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 02:24

View Postgnasher, on 2012-April-24, 01:14, said:

Assuming 2 was just waiting, I think it's normal to play that:
- Very bad hands bid the second negative
- 4 shows four good trumps and no side-suit control, eg QJxx xx xxxx xxx, or the same hand with an extra queen.
- 3 promises semi-positive values, such as this.

Agreed
I also consider the hand unsuitable for 4.
4 should certainly deny a first round control, though 3 does not promise one.

Quote

That gives 3 quite a wide range, so you should play serious/non-serious 3NT.

I beg to differ.
Starting the bidding at the two level with no indication whatsoever about your distribution and then make 3NT an artificial bid seems to me the height of folly.
If I were forced to play such methods I would refuse to raise immediately with 3=3=4=3.
I would pass a 3NT rebid by opener. I see no good reason why opener can not have something like AKJxxxx, AQ, Qx Kx.
This is also the main reason I would reject 4. It is difficult to reach 3NT when you bid 4 with 3=3=4=3

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#16 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 02:53

View Postbroze, on 2012-April-23, 17:38, said:

I have heard Justin and others start sentences: "with a random expert pick-up partner I would assume..." I still don't think it is unreasonable to ask what one might assume here if auction undiscussed.

That requires at least the additional information that we are talking about North American experts.

Playing with a North American pickup partner with no agreements, I assume 2 is forcing.
Playing with a German pickup partner with no agreements, I assume 2 is nonforcing.
Surely this is quite a fundamental difference.
Playing with anyone for more than 4 boards, I would have ascertained at least whether 2 is the strongest possible opening bid in our system. Playing with anyone for more than 12 boards or so, I would have defined at least vaguely what a 2 response means and whether it is possible to get out below game on a non-2NT rebid.

All this is not in the least a discussion of "Expert-Class Bridge".
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#17 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 03:40

View Postmgoetze, on 2012-April-24, 02:53, said:

Playing with a German pickup partner with no agreements, I assume 2 is nonforcing.

If 2 would have been "semi-forcing" (or Precision for that matter) it would have been explained.
Besides, few people outside of Germany still play such a nonsense.
To put it kindly Germany is not the leading edge in bidding theory.

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#18 User is offline   mgoetze 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 04:24

View Postrhm, on 2012-April-24, 03:40, said:

Besides, few people outside of Germany still play such a nonsense.

I hear it is still reasonably popular in England and France as well.
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#19 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 05:43

View Postmgoetze, on 2012-April-24, 04:24, said:

I hear it is still reasonably popular in England and France as well.

In England it's quite popular to play 2 or 2 as the equivalent of "semi-forcing", but with opener's 2M rebid being a one-round force. That's "popular" in the same way as Acol is popular - almost none of the top players play it, but lots of lower-level players do.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#20 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2012-April-24, 05:46

Bidding second negative with 4-card support feels really wrong. With 3 small support and nothing else that's useful I can see bidding second negative.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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